Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
11.06.2025 09:20
You'll usually find your answer there.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
There's no rule.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
How did the Nazis figure out whether a person or community is 'Aryan' or not?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
What is the most offensive thing someone has ever asked you?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.